reptyle Posted May 14, 2009 I am curious as to the relationship between the theraputic index of available and unavailable street medicines and the general price of said substance. Does anyone have a reliable graphical comparison or theoretical model for such a thing? Any comments shall be integrated... blessings..... Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
faustus Posted May 14, 2009 i'm interested in the issue of therapeutic index, but i'm not sure about what you're asking? do you want to demonstrate that drugs with a lower therapeutic index are cheaper or what? are we talking rx meds, or rx meds that have abuse potential? therapeutic index = LD50 / ED50. for ketamine, the recreational dose is about 100x lower than the LD50. high therapeutic index. for heroin, the LD50 is actually quite higher than you'd think, combining it with other drugs will kill you easily, however. for valium, the LD50 is EXTREMELY fucking high, from memory about 2g/kg for barbs, the LD50 is very low, that's why they were phased out. you also need to consider therapeutic dose against dose at which bad things happen (as opposed to LD50). it's not a med, but GHB is an example. pretty high LD50, but at much lower doses will put you in an unconscious state and you might wake up with tubes down your throat. IMHO a better predictor of a price is whether or not they're patented. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Thelema Posted May 16, 2009 not trying to be pedantic, but GHB is a med in Italy. Makes you wary of what is "med". hehe Share this post Link to post Share on other sites